KnowledgeHub
Questions
Tags
Users
Search
Alex Rivera
|
Logout
Edit Question
Title
Body
I am trying to figure out a problem with some code I have inherited. I have an HTML page with <script type="text/javascript" src="file1.js" defer="defer"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="file2.js" defer="defer"></script> </body> </html> file1.js has FOO = { init : function () { var bar = BAR; } } $(document).ready(FOO.init); file2.js has var BAR = { } Because of the defer attribute on the elements, is it safe to assume that when the .ready() calls FOO.init() that BAR may still be undefined at that point b/c the code in file2.js hasn't executed yet because of the deferred execution? This would match a bug I am trying to track down (only occurs sporadically in IE), but I really want to understand why this is happening before I work on a solution. I have no idea why the original developer used defer , other than a cryptic commend about "he had to" do it this way.
Tags (comma-separated)
Save Edits
Cancel