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Alex Rivera
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I simply cannot believe this is quite so hard to determine. Even having read the RFCs, it's not clear to me if a server at subdomain.example.com can set a cookie that can be read by example.com. subdomain.example.com can set a cookie whose Domain attribute is .example.com. RFC 2965 seems to explicitly state that such a cookie will not be sent to example.com, but then equally says that if you set Domain=example.com, a dot is prepended, as if you said .example.com. Taken together, this seems to say that if example.com returns sets a cookie with Domain=example.com, it doesn't get that cookie back! That can't be right. Can anyone clarify what the rules really are?
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